Kirk from Texas asks:
There is a runner at first base with no outs. The hitter swings and misses on strike 3, and the catcher drops the ball. If the runner at first base was making an attempt to steal second, is 1st base considered occupied or unoccupied, allowing the hitter to attempt to take first on a dropped call 3rd strike?
Even though the runner was attempting to steal, first base is still considered occupied in this situation and the batter cannot attempt to advance to first on the dropped third strike.
Answered by: Jonathan Bravo